Martin v. Hunter's Lessee
14 U.S. (1 Wheat.) 304 (1816)
Hunter claimed some land
granted to him by Virginia in 1789, as part of a deal that confiscated
lands owned by British subjects.
Martin, who owned the land
and was a British subject claimed that the confiscation was illegitimate
under an anticonfiscation clause of the treaties between the US and UK.
The Trial Court found in favor
of Martin. Hunter appealed.
The Appellate Court reversed.
Martin appealed.
The Appellate Court found
that the State's title to the land was vested prior to the relevant
treaties
US Supreme Court reversed the
Appellate Court and found for Martin
The US Supreme Court found
that Virginia had not 'perfected its title' before the relevant treaties.
The Appellate Court in
Virginia refused to reverse their decision!
The Appellate Court claimed
§25 of the Judiciary Act was
unconstitutional insofar as it extended the appellate jurisdiction of the
US Supreme Court to the Virginia Court.
Basically, the Virginia
Court was saying that the US Supreme Court couldn't overrule their
decisions.
The Court claimed that §25
placed 'one sovereign under the direct control of another', and was
therefore unconstitutional.
The original idea of the
United States was that each individual State was sovereign.
The Court claimed that if it
is a Federal issue, then it should
be filed in a Federal
Court.
The Court felt that a
person can't start in a State Court and then end up with Federal
jurisdiction.
The US Supreme Court found
that they have appellate jurisdiction over the constitutional decisions
made by State Courts?
The US Supreme Court found
that since the Constitution says that "the Supreme Court shall have
appellate jurisdiction," they can pretty much take any case on
appeal that they like, regardless of what the Virginia Appellate Court
thinks.
The Court found that §10 of Article
I of the US Constitution takes a lot
of the States sovereignty away anyway, how is this any different?
The Constitution, in Article
1 §10 says things like the States
can't enter into treaties, grant titles of Nobility or other things.
These are all things that 'sovereigns' tend to have, since they don't
have them, they can't be quite sovereign.
The Court found that they
must have some input into issues related to the Constitution. Since the
Constitution forbids them from acting directly, they therefore must have
the duty to act on appeal.
It is the "case"
and not the "court" that gives the jurisdiction.
The State Courts are the
initial arbitrators of Federal issues, but they can't be the final word.
States Courts are more likely to be biased than Federal Courts (State
judges are elected and subject to political pressure).
If a State makes an
unconstitutional law, the Supreme Court is the only place where this can
be dealt with, since the State Court will likely only enforce State
laws.
The rule is that in order for
the Supreme Court to step in, there must be a:
Constitutional Issue
Federal Statute Issue, or a
International Treaty Issue
There are a few very good
reasons for why the US Supreme Court should have final appellate jurisdiction for all cases:
With respect to the powers
granted by the United States, the State judges are not independent, since
they have taken an oath to uphold the Constitution.
Different State Courts will
interpret things differently. A Federal Court is required to help smooth
out differences in interpretation. You can't have asymmetrical
interpretation of the law.
If Virginia were correct, it
would mean that plaintiffs could go 'forum shopping' and could find a
court that is amenable to their side of the story.